I divorced my husband in 2003. He has a house in Spain under his sole name. As part of the divorce settlement he retained this property. He now wants to sell this property and even though we are divorced, because the flat was purchased during marriage, he has requested a PoA document from me allowing him to sell the property although I don't understand why I would need to sign given I have been divorced for 6 years. Surely he should be able to show his divorce papers to show there is no interested spouse?

He also asks that I obtain an NIE number. As far as I understand, an NIE n° is compulsory for anyone selling or buying property in Spain or wishing to reside in Spain and for anyone paying money to the Spanish Inland Revenue

I have no property or assets in Spain and have not visited Spain since 2004. Why would I need an NIE number if the property is under his sole name, he will retain 100% of the sale proceeds and he is liable to pay 100% of taxes related to sale? By obtaining an NIE number is he trying to implicate me with his tax liability?

I would apprecaite advice on the NIE number.