I have a house under sole ownership in Spain and according to a number of Spanish solicitors who have seen the Escritura I am told that under Spanish law the house would not be included in a divorce settlement. I also own 50% of another Spanish property and my husband owns the other 50%. I have a couple of questions:
1. Can an English court include the sole ownership property in a Financial order and if they do, how can my husband enforce this in Spain. Can I appeal this in Spain and refuse to "hand" the property over.
2. Can I transfer/gift the sole ownership property to my 15 year old twins to avoid it being included in the settlement.
I am going round in circles on this - any advice would be greatly appreciated.
Many thanks
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