In England and Wales, if a defendant is found not guilty they can submit a defendant’s cost order to have their legal fees assessed & paid by the court.
(Note, I mention the “court” and not “the other party” as I am specifically referring to cases where it's government Vs defendant, i.e. criminal cases. For example, contesting a drink driving offence).

Can you get legal costs paid for when found not guilty in Spain under the above scenario?

A simple yes/no answer will do me :-) Thanks in advance.