my wife and i bought a property in spain in 2000, she took the money from the sale of our joint property in england and went and bought the house in spain. the house is solely in her name as i could not be present when it was purchased. we have since split up and she is currently living in the property. i have told her that in time i want a divorce and also to sell the house when the property market picks up again. she has told me i have no claim to the property at all as its solely in her name. the house in england was bought through a joint account of ours and can be traced if needed. can you please advise of my rights. thanks