My business partner and I own a property jointly in Spain (50/50) in our personal names but with the beneficial ownership in favour of our UK company, which in turn had borrowed the funds from another company to facilitate the purchase. Since the property was purchased in 2003 it is assumed that there has been a negligible change in value plus the original loan is still outstanding and therefore equivalent to the value of the property, hence there is no residual value (equity). It is intended that I sell my shares in the UK company to him (subject to UK CGT) to him and transfer the ownership of the property to him for no money (i.e. because there is no residual value above the outstanding mortgage). Am I correct in my understanding that we can do this through a dissolution of joint ownership with him paying the 1% stamp duty instead of the 7% transfer tax (both plus fees)? Because we have assumed no change in value and therefore no capital gain will I avoid Spanish CGT on my outgoing share in the property? It there anything else we should consider, other than ultimately taking specific legal advice? Thank you