I am selling my share of a spanish property to my ex-partner. Because of the fall in the property market the amount he is paying me is the same as we purchased the property for approx 4 years ago - based on valuations by local estate agents. Please can you confirm: 1. that I will therefore not have to pay 18% CGT as there is no gain, and the 3% will not be withheld, 2. will plusvalia tax still be payable, and 3. as the mortgage is only in his name will we have to pay fees for a new escritoria and should I have to pay for this or is it his cost?
If there are any other costs I should consider please could you advise what these would be.
Many thanks