I wonder if you could help me please.

Around 10 yrs ago I purchased a property in Spain and a letting company managed the renting of the property. After around 1yr of ownership I received a letter to say the property had fallen into technical default. The letting company had gone bankrupt and had not informed us. The mortgage had not been paid for nearly a year. I spoke to the bank and they where not willing to negotiate and informed me it would be repossessed. So I walked away. Recently I contacted the Spanish solicitor about the property and he informed me that he still had the deeds and that I now owned the property outright.

I am going to contact him again tomorrow but I wanted to know, is it possible that I can now own the property? Does the bank have a certain time to repossess maybe and if not then the property passes to the owner?

Thanks for you help.