What happens if somebody is married and on the escritura it says bienes separados, does the husband have any rights over th property if the escritura says that it belongs to the wife and that it is her house using the terms of "bienes separados"?
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What happens if somebody is married and on the escritura it says bienes separados, does the husband have any rights over th property if the escritura says that it belongs to the wife and that it is her house using the terms of "bienes separados"?
Dear Sir/Madam,
I take it the persons you are refering to are British. In this case by default thier economical regime is separation of assets.
Meaning that even if they are married if the property is lodged under the name of solely one of them then the other would have no claim on it.
Only if there was a ruling from a UK High Court which was final (cannot be appealed) stating that one of the spouses had claim on the property would they be entitled despite not appearing lodged as an owner.