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msdalestar
03-30-2011, 04:47 PM
My husband and I purchased, with joint funds a property in Spain in 1994. However, the deeds were made in his sole name. I have designed, managed, part-built the property but now he has been declared bankrupt in the UK and this house has been taken by the OR.
Is there anything I can do to secure my claim on the house?

msdalestar
04-08-2011, 04:09 PM
Our Spanish property is in the sole name of my husband.
We have been married over 25 years.
What is my claim on this property, in the event of a divorce or bankruptcy.

Patricia
04-13-2011, 02:19 PM
Dear Msdalestar,

Welcome to the belegal forums.

If you are able to prove that you indeed contributed financially to the construction and refurbishment of the property, you should be able to secure a claim on your share of this property.

The case is complex, as it involves two jurisdictions. The fact the that the property has been taken by the OR (do you mean IR - Inland Revenue perhaps?), adds a new layer of complexity. We would need to know exactly what this means (whether it has been embargoed, auctioned, etc) and try to find a way to reverse this situation to secure your share on the property (if such procedure can be applied in such a complex case).

If you let us have further information on the case, one of our lawyers can give you a more detailed answer to your enquiry free of cost, and propose a course of action to follow.

Our contact details can be found on http://www.lawbird.com/about/ .

Regards,

msdalestar
04-14-2011, 08:46 AM
Does anyone have any assistance in this matter - please??
Thank you.

ifv
04-14-2011, 08:52 AM
Hello msdalestar

Your original enquiry was replied on another thread, which I have now merged with this one.

Regards

msdalestar
04-22-2011, 11:55 AM
Thank you for your help.

The spanish property has been named as a sole asset in my husband's bankruptcy. Therefore, they (Official Receiver, on behalf of IR) are wanting him to sell it to release monies to pay debts. A substantial offer has been made in the past.

I contributed, by way of project managing the build over five years and three members of my family contributed physically and financially to complete the project, in exchange for the future use of the property. However, nothing was formalised as we did not anticipate this situation.

I/we are wanting to purchase my husband's share of the property, but 'they' are saying that I do not have a claim as it is in sole ownership, preferring to sell the it.

The property would not realise a great deal of money in the current market and there are several similar houses in the area, even with great reductions - that are still not selling.

How can I secure my share of this property please?
What procedure do I need to implement - if any?

Thank you in advance.