Intestacy

I am a 50% owner of a property in Spain which was purchased by my husband and myself approximately 14 years ago. Shortly afterwards we separated and as part of our settlement arrangements it was agreed that he would retain the property in Spain and I would transfer my 50% interest to him. For reasons known only to my husband he has not arranged the transfer of the house to him, which I understand is more of a problem for him than it is for me. I am now in the process of updating my will in England and I intend to exclude my interest in the Spanish property from this will. I do not intend to make a will in Spain in respect of my interest in the Spanish property. In such circumstances, what will happen to my 50% interest in the Spanish property on my death? For example, will it automatically pass to my husband?
Many thanks