View Full Version : Mmrcm

05-02-2017, 11:05 PM
I have just received a letter from an ex girlfriends lawyer asking for me to sign the property we bought together into her sole name. (We bought this property together 12 years ago and I have since been married to someone else for 10 years).
We bought 2 dwellings one for cash and the other was mortgaged. I know that the ex girlfriend has paid the mortgage (I never lived there we broke up straight away) from the start but the money we bought the houses with originally was mine. I am not after half of the value of the property but I want to know if I am entitled to get my half of the deposits that were paid. I have no paperwork of any kind and never have had. What are my options. Any advise appreciated.

05-02-2017, 11:07 PM
Sorry I forgot to mention the properties are in Spain

05-03-2017, 02:36 PM
Hello Mmrcm

You mention you bought two properties jointly but your ex-partner is only claiming one of them. One of them is subject to a mortgage and the other is free of charges, so the dissolution will work differently.

After the dissolution has been processed you may consider filing a Court Claim for illicit gain, but the case has to be studied in detail.

If you wish, please feel free to contact us by email t discuss further.


05-03-2017, 03:33 PM
Hi thanks for the reply, she is asking for all to be signed over to her as she is the one who has paid the mortgage, my concern is does signing over the house take me off the mortgage also as there is no mention of doing that.

05-08-2017, 02:48 PM

Property deeds and mortgage deeds are two separate matters. Even if you dissolve the joined ownership, the bank may refuse to leave her as sole mortgage holder.

It is the Bank´s decision and they are not in the obligation to do so. They will study her financial capacity and take a decision.

The dissolution of the ownership can be done regardless what happens with the mortgage. You may be no longer an owner, but still be held responsible for mortgage payments.