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hopeless
10-21-2010, 05:25 PM
My husband and I are going through a messy divorce. He signed power of attorney over to me with regards to the house we bought together in spain. He hasnīt paid his half of the mortgage for 3 years and I have paid it in full. He wants me to sell the house and get his half of any profits. is this possible if I can prove he has not paid the mortgage? (which I can)Will his share be reduced?
What will happen if I stay in the house for 5 more years and then sell? Presuming of course that he doesnt pay any of the mortgage. Will he still be entitled to half or a reduction.